If U. S. District Judge Robert J. Shelby's ruling is upheld and Utah's gay marriage ban indeed violates gay's right to due process and equal protection, then using his exact same logic, rationale and wording, there can be no ban on polygamy either ("After same-sex marriage ruling, Utah seeks to keep status quo," Tribune, Dec. 21). Isn't that true?
Legally, what difference is there? The rights of any three people are no less than the rights of any two people.
Joe Brafford
Beavercreek, Ohio